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Last August 2, I made a post entitled "The Basis for VAT." Here's an update regarding that matter.

If an ordinary asset were sold below the zonal value, we all know the CWT will be based on the zonal. But what about VAT?

I've encountered several broker colleagues for whom the BIR imposed VAT for selling their personal properties. Is this correct? No. Real...

Here's a summary of all the lessons I've learned from my clients' problems. Follow these and you'll be fine.